Recently, in media, there has been talk about how U.S violated Pakistan's sovereignty in going in, and killing Osama. My question is, how does a nation get this 'sovereignty'? As far as I know, there are only individual rights, and this seems to imply more. So, is this even a concept?
I think it's a valid concept. Properly, the government of a nation has exclusive right to the use of force in its jurisdiction. That's the purpose of government, in the most broad sense.
A criminal forefeits his individual rights when he commits a crime. Likewise, a nation forefeits its sovereignty when it improperly attacks other nations, or harbors those that attack other nations, whether willingly or through some sort of incompetance or malfeasance.
Reportedly, the US had found that any time an attempt was made to cooperate with the Pakistani government in the arrest of Bin Laden, he was alerted to the impending arrest and escaped, so Pakistan had effectively forefeited its sovereignty, at least in that matter.
Note that this is just my take on the matter. I believe it to be consistent with Objectivism, but I'm not sure if Ayn Rand addressed this particular issue.
answered May 13 '11 at 04:48