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One of Merriam Webster's definitions of 'subjective' is: 'characteristic of or belonging to reality as perceived rather than as independent of mind'. Rand acknowledges that reality must be perceived by man (via his mind and reason) first, before he can make a rational decision on how to act morally. If true, isn't man making decisions subjectively?

asked Apr 16 '15 at 11:00

MarcMercier's gravatar image

MarcMercier ♦

That is not a good definition of Subjectivism. Subjectivism is the doctrine that the facts of reality are created or shaped by our thinking/feeling/dictates (so titled because we are the "subject" in the subject-object relationship). So it would be Subjectivism to act under the policy that one's consciousness is authoring the facts of reality; it would be the literal opposite of Subjectivism to act under the policy that choices should be based on a rational grasp of the mind-independent facts.

(Apr 16 '15 at 16:22) Greg Perkins ♦♦ Greg%20Perkins's gravatar image

I concur completely with Greg's comment regarding the nature of subjectivism. I also see a distinctly Kantian aspect in this question: the claim that the senses distort perception somehow, so that man cannot know "true reality" as it actually is, in itself. Objectivism holds that the senses do, indeed, provide man's most basic cognitive contact with reality, and Objectivism simultaneously denies that the senses prevent man from grasping reality. Further discussion can be found in the topics of "Kant, Immanuel" and "Subjectivism" in The Ayn Rand Lexicon.

answered Apr 17 '15 at 00:56

Ideas%20for%20Life's gravatar image

Ideas for Life ♦

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Asked: Apr 16 '15 at 11:00

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Last updated: Apr 17 '15 at 00:56