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People like Catalan nationalists, and northern Italian separatists are often described as trying to balkanize the world. In the first case it is about language, in the second case it is not - it is about economics. And one could argue that economics also plays an important role in the case of Catalonia, which is more industrialized than the rest of Spain and does not want to send a lot of money to Madrid. Is there justification for these regions to be independent countries? For example, tax competition drives rates low even in welfare states like Germany and France, simply because they have to compete internationally. Would an increase in nations not lead to more competition? Even if it is for "ethnical" reasons or other erroneous concepts (compare "Global Balkanization" by Ayn Rand).

asked Jan 22 '13 at 14:08

Bas's gravatar image

Bas
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edited Jan 22 '13 at 14:39

Greg%20Perkins's gravatar image

Greg Perkins ♦♦
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This question is not really a matter of philosophy except to say that there are rational and irrational reasons which can be at play here. A desire for political freedom from an oppressive government would be a rational (i.e., beneficial) reason for a region to want independence. A desire for nationalist or ethnic purity would be an irrational one. I don't think there is a single correct answer to the question. Instead, you'd need to evaluate the particular circumstances of each situation, determine the motives at work, the probable impact, the means used, and only then could one decide if it would beneficial in that situation.

answered Feb 04 '13 at 01:18

Andrew%20Miner's gravatar image

Andrew Miner ♦
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Asked: Jan 22 '13 at 14:08

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Last updated: Feb 04 '13 at 01:18