login about faq

What's the objective line by which someone can grant "consent"?

asked Oct 26 '12 at 00:39

Humbug's gravatar image

Humbug
508110

edited Oct 26 '12 at 09:24

Greg%20Perkins's gravatar image

Greg Perkins ♦♦
1002127217

I assume by statutory rape you mean where the issue of lack of consent is determined solely by the objective criterion of the person's age, as opposed to the person's subjective state of mind?

(Oct 26 '12 at 06:45) anthony anthony's gravatar image

I don't know that the problem is that they are non-objective, but our rape laws in general, and statutory rape laws in particular, tend to be a hacked up compromise of many different views on women, and sex, and consent. If you don't know the historical development of rape laws, it's quite illuminating on this.

This is particularly evident in the so-called "Romeo and Juliet laws", where the ability of a (for example) 16-year-old to consent is statutorily determined by the age of the partner.

(Oct 26 '12 at 07:06) anthony anthony's gravatar image

Dr. Diana Hsieh addressed this issue in a Philosophy in Action podcast: Statutory Rape Laws There's a lot in the discussion to consider but she writes that her answer is in brief:

As currently written, statutory rape laws are unjust. The law can and ought protect sexually mature minors by focusing on consent, using shifting burdens of proof, and allowing parents to use restraining orders.

answered Oct 26 '12 at 09:35

Greg%20Perkins's gravatar image

Greg Perkins ♦♦
1002127217

edited Oct 26 '12 at 09:40

Follow this question

By Email:

Once you sign in you will be able to subscribe for any updates here

By RSS:

Answers

Answers and Comments

Share This Page:

Tags:

×74
×22
×14

Asked: Oct 26 '12 at 00:39

Seen: 366 times

Last updated: Oct 26 '12 at 09:40